PEDS FINAL QUESTIONS TEST BANK CHAPTER 1: 2. Which is the leading cause of death in infants younger than 1 year in the United States? a. Congenital anomalies b. Sudden infant death syndrome c. Disorders related to short gestation and low birth weight d. Maternal complications specific to the perinatal period 3. What is the major cause of death for children older than 1 year in the United States? a. Heart disease b. Childhood cancer c. Unintentional injuries d. Congenital anomalies 4. In addition to injuries, what are the leading causes of death in adolescents ages 15 to 19 years? a. Suicide and cancer b. Suicide and homicide c. Drowning and cancer d. Homicide and heart disease 7. The nurse should assess which age group for suicide ideation since suicide in which age group is the third leading cause of death? a. Preschoolers b. Young school age c. Middle school age d. Late school age and adolescents 15. The nurse is aware that which age group is at risk for childhood injury because of the cognitive characteristic of magical and egocentric thinking? a. Preschool b. Young school age c. Middle school age d. Adolescent 8. Parents of a hospitalized toddler ask the nurse, What is meant by family-centered care? The nurse should respond with which statement? a. Family-centered care reduces the effect of cultural diversity on the family. b. Family-centered care encourages family dependence on the health care system. c. Family-centered care recognizes that the family is the constant in a childs life. d. Family-centered care avoids expecting families to be part of the decision-making process. 13. The nurse is planning care for a hospitalized preschool-aged child. Which should the nurse plan to ensure atraumatic care? a. Limit explanation of procedures because the child is preschool aged. b. Ask that all family members leave the room when performing procedures. c. Allow the child to choose the type of juice to drink with the administration of oral medications. d. Explain that EMLA cream cannot be used for the morning lab draw because there is not time for it to be effective. CHAPTER 2 8. How is family systems theory best described? a. The family is viewed as the sum of individual members. b. A change in one family member cannot create a change in other members. c. Individual family members are readily identified as the source of a problem. d. When the family system is disrupted, change can occur at any point in the system. 9. Which family theory is described as a series of tasks for the family throughout its life span? a. Exchange theory b. Developmental theory c. Structural-functional theory d. Symbolic interactional theory 10. Which family theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events? a. Interactional theory b. Family stress theory c. Eriksons psychosocial theory d. Developmental systems theory 24. The nurse is planning to counsel family members as a group to assess the familys group dynamics. Which theoretic family model is the nurse using as a framework? a. Feminist theory b. Family stress theory c. Family systems theory d. Developmental theory 12. Which type of family should the nurse recognize when a mother, her children, and a stepfather live together? a. Traditional nuclear b. Blended c. Extended d. Binuclear 15. When assessing a family, the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children. This style of parenting is called which? a. Permissive b. Dictatorial c. Democratic d. Authoritarian 17. Which is a consequence of the physical punishment of children, such as spanking? a. The psychologic impact is usually minimal. b. The childs development of reasoning increases. c. Children rarely become accustomed to spanking. d. Misbehavior is likely to occur when parents are not present. a. Send the child to his or her room if the child has one. b. A general rule for length of time is 1 hour per year of age. c. Select an area that is safe and nonstimulating, such as a hallway. d. If the child cries, refuses, or is more disruptive, try another approach. The area must be nonstimulating and safe. The child becomes bored in this environment and then changes behavior to rejoin activities. The childs room may have toys and activities that negate the effect of being separated from the family. The general rule is 1 minute per year of age. An hour per year is excessive. When the child cries, refuses, or is more disruptive, the time-out does not start; the time-out begins when the child quiets. 27. The nurse is explaining different parenting styles to a group of parents. The nurse explains that an authoritative parenting style can lead to which child behavior? a. Shyness b. Self-reliance c. Submissiveness d. Self-consciousness 28. Parents of a preschool child ask the nurse, Should we set rules for our child as part of a discipline plan? Which is an accurate response by the nurse? a. It is best to delay the punishment if a rule is broken. b. The child is too young for rules. At this age, unrestricted freedom is best. c. It is best to set the rules and reason with the child when the rules are broken. d. Set clear and reasonable rules and expect the same behavior regardless of the circumstances. 2. The parents of a 5-year-old child ask the nurse how they can minimize misbehavior. Which responses should the nurse give? (Select all that apply.) a. Set clear and reasonable goals. b. Praise your child for desirable behavior. c. Dont call attention to unacceptable behavior. d. Teach desirable behavior through your own example. e. Dont provide an opportunity for your child to have any control. 11. Which type of family should the nurse recognize when the paternal grandmother, the parents, and two minor children live together? a. Blended b. Nuclear c. Extended d. Binuclear CHAPTER 6 3. A 4-month-old infant comes to the clinic for a well-infant checkup. Immunizations she should receive are DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine). She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her older sister has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy. Nursing considerations should include which? a. DTaP and IPV can be safely given. b. DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because she has a cold. c. IPV is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised. d. DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised. 4. Which serious reaction should the nurse be alert for when administering vaccines? a. Fever b. Skin irritation c. Allergic reaction d. Pain at injection site 7. Which vitamin supplementation has been found to reduce both morbidity and mortality in measles? a. A b. B1 c. C d. Zinc Evidence suggests that vitamin A supplementation reduces both morbidity and mortality in measles. 14. Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for which? a. Sympathetic nerve fibers b. Parasympathetic nerve fibers c. Lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord d. Posterior root ganglia and posterior horn of the spinal cord 18. Which is usually the only symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)? a. Itching b. Vesicles c. Scalp rash d. Localized inflammatory response 20. The nurse should know what about Lyme disease? a. Very difficult to prevent b. Easily treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1, 2, and 3 c. Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite d. Common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease 22. The nurse is preparing an airborne infection isolation room for a patient. Which communicable disease does the patient likely have? a. Varicella b. Pertussis c. Influenza d. Scarlet fever 25. The nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella (MMRV) vaccine. Which is a contraindication associated with administering this vaccine? a. The child has recently been exposed to an infectious disease. b. The child has symptoms of a cold but no fever. c. The child is having intermittent episodes of diarrhea. d. The child has a disorder that causes a deficient immune system. 28. The nurse is assessing a child suspected of having pinworms. Which is the most common symptom the nurse expects to assess? a. Restlessness b. Distractibility c. Rectal discharge d. Intense perianal itching 1. The nurse is planning care for a child with chickenpox (varicella). Which prescribed supportive measures should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Administration of acyclovir (Zovirax) b. Administration of azithromycin (Zithromax) c. Administration of Vitamin A supplementation d. Administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for fever e. Administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for itching 2. The nurse is planning care for an infant with candidiasis (moniliasis) diaper dermatitis. Which topical ointments may be prescribed for the patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Nystatin b. Bactroban c. Neosporin d. Miconazole e. Clotrimazole 5. The nurse is planning to administer immunizations to a 6-month-old infant. Which interventions should the nurse implement to minimize local reactions from the vaccines? (Select all that apply.) a. Select a needle length of 1 inch. b. Administer in the deltoid muscle. c. Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis. d. Draw the vaccine up from a vial with a filter needle. e. Change the needle on the syringe after drawing up the vaccine and before injecting. 6. The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old child who developed lesions of varicella (chickenpox) 3 days ago. Which clinical manifestations of varicella should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Nonpruritic rash b. Elevated temperature c. Discrete rose pink rash d. Vesicles surrounded by an erythematous base e. Centripetal rash in all three stages (papule, vesicle, and crust) 7. The nurse is preparing to admit a 1-year-old child with pertussis (whooping cough). Which clinical manifestations of pertussis should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Earache b. Coryza c. Conjunctivitis d. Low-grade fever e. Dry hacking cough 8. The nurse is preparing to admit a 2-year-old child with rubella (German measles). Which clinical manifestations of rubella should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Sore throat b. Conjunctivitis c. Koplik spots d. Lymphadenopathy e. Discrete, pinkish red maculopapular exanthema CHAPTER 10 1. At which age does an infant start to recognize familiar faces and objects, such as his or her own hand? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months 2. During the 2-month well-child checkup, the nurse expects the infant to respond to sound in which manner? a. Respond to name. b. React to loud noise with Moro reflex. c. Turn his or her head to side when sound is at ear level. d. Locate sound by turning his or her head in a curving arc. 3. Which characteristic best describes the fine motor skills of an infant at age 5 months? a. Neat pincer grasp b. Strong grasp reflex c. Builds a tower of two cubes d. Able to grasp object voluntarily 4. The nurse is checking reflexes on a 7-month-old infant. When the infant is suspended in a horizontal prone position, the head is raised and the legs and spine are extended. Which reflex is this? a. Landau b. Parachute c. Body righting d. Labyrinth righting 5. In terms of gross motor development, what should the nurse expect an infant age 5 months to do? a. Sit erect without support. b. Roll from the back to the abdomen. c. Turn from the abdomen to the back. d. Move from a prone to a sitting position. 6. At which age can most infants sit steadily unsupported? a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 8 months d. 12 months 7. By which age should the nurse expect that an infant will be able to pull to a standing position? a. 5 to 6 months b. 7 to 8 months c. 11 to 12 months d. 14 to 15 months 8. According to Piaget, a 6-month-old infant should be in which developmental stage? a. Use of reflexes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Coordination of secondary schemata 9. At which age do most infants begin to fear strangers? a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months 10. At which age should the nurse expect most infants to begin to say mama and dada with meaning? a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 10 months d. 14 months 11. At which age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months 12. The nurse is discussing development and play activities with the parent of a 2-month-old boy. Which statement by the parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? a. I can give my baby a ball of yarn to pull apart or different textured fabrics to feel. b. I can use a music box and soft mobiles as appropriate play activities for my baby. c. I should introduce a cup and spoon or pushpull toys for my baby at this age. d. I do not have to worry about appropriate play activities at this age. 13. What is an appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation? a. Playing peek-a-boo b. Playing pat-a-cake c. Imitating animal sounds d. Showing how to clap hands 14. What information should be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities for this age? a. Give large pushpull toys for kinetic stimulation. b. Place a cradle gym across the crib to help develop fine motor skills. c. Provide the child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills. d. Provide a stick horse to develop gross motor coordination. 15. The parents of a 2-month-old boy are concerned about spoiling their son by picking him up when he cries. What is the nurses best response? a. Allow him to cry for no longer than 15 minutes and then pick him up. b. Babies need comforting and cuddling. Meeting these needs will not spoil him. c. Babies this young cry when they are hungry. Try feeding him when he cries. d. If he isnt soiled or wet, leave him, and hell cry himself to sleep. 16. The nurse is interviewing the father of a 10-month-old girl. The child is playing on the floor when she notices an electrical outlet and reaches up to touch it. Her father says no firmly and moves her away from the outlet. The nurse should use this opportunity to teach the father what? a. That the child should be given a time-out b. That the child is old enough to understand the word no c. That the child will learn safety issues better if she is spanked d. That the child should already know that electrical outlets are dangerous 19. An infant, age 6 months, has six teeth. The nurse should recognize that this is what? a. Normal tooth eruption b. Delayed tooth eruption c. Unusual and dangerous d. Earlier than expected tooth eruption 22. At what age is it safe to give infants whole milk instead of commercial infant formula? a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 12 months d. 18 months 25. What is the best age to introduce solid food into an infants diet? a. 2 to 3 months b. 4 to 6 months c. When birth weight has tripled d. When tooth eruption has started 26. The parent of 2-week-old infant asks the nurse if fluoride supplements are necessary because the infant is exclusively breastfed. What is the nurses best response? a. The infant needs to begin taking them now. b. Supplements are not needed if you drink fluoridated water. c. The infant may need to begin taking them at age 6 months. d. The infant can have infant cereal mixed with fluoridated water instead of supplements. 27. An infant, age 5 months, is brought to the clinic by his parents for a well-baby checkup. What is the best advice that the nurse should include at this time about injury prevention? a. Keep buttons, beads, and other small objects out of his reach. b. Do not permit him to chew paint from window ledges because he might absorb too much lead. c. When he learns to roll over, you must supervise him whenever he is on a surface from which he might fall. d. Lock the crib sides securely because he may stand and lean against them and fall out of bed. 30. The parent of an 8.2-kg (18-lb) 9-month-old infant is borrowing a federally approved car seat from the clinic. The nurse should explain that the safest way to put in the car seat is what? a. Front facing in back seat b. Rear facing in back seat c. Front facing in front seat with air bag on passenger side d. Rear facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side 32. The nurse is performing an assessment on a 12-month-old infant. Which fine or gross motor developmental skill demonstrates the proximodistal acquisition of skills? a. Standing b. Sitting without assistance c. Fully developed pincer grasp d. Taking a few steps holding onto something 33. An infant weighed 8 lb at birth and was 18 inches in length. What weight and length should the infant be at 5 months of age? a. 12 lb, 20 inches b. 14 lb, 21.5 inches c. 16 lb, 23 inches d. 18 lb, 24.5 inches 35. The nurse is teaching parents about expected language development for their 6-month-old infant. The nurse recognizes the parents understand the teaching if they make which statement? a. Our baby should comprehend the word no. b. Our baby knows the meaning of saying mama. c. Our baby should be able to say three to five words. d. Our baby should begin to combine syllables, such as dada. 36. The nurse is performing an assessment on a 10-week-old infant. The nurse understands that the developmental characteristic of hearing at this age is which? a. The infant responds to his own name. b. The infant localizes sounds by turning his head directly to the sound. c. The infant turns his head to the side when sound is made at the level of the ear. d. The infant locates sound by turning his head to the side and then looking up or down. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The nurse is teaching a group of parents at a community education program about introducing solid foods to their infants. Which recommendations should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Spoon feeding should be introduced after an entire milk feeding. b. It is best to introduce a wide variety of foods during the first year. c. As solid food consumption increases, the quantity of milk should decrease. d. Introduction of low-calorie milk and food should be done by the end of the first year. e. Introduction of citrus fruits, meats, and eggs should be delayed until after 6 months of age. f. Each new food item should be introduced at 5- to 7-day intervals. 6. The clinic nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant during a well-child appointment. The nurse should use which approaches to alleviate the infants stranger anxiety? (Select all that apply.) a. Talk in a loud voice. b. Meet the infant at eye level. c. Avoid sudden intrusive gestures. d. Maintain a safe distance initially. e. Pick up the infant and hold him or her closely. 7. The nurse is evaluating a 7-month-old infants cognitive development. Which behaviors should the nurse anticipate evaluating? (Select all that apply.) a. Imitates sounds b. Shows interest in a mirror image c. Comprehends simple commands d. Actively searches for a hidden object e. Attracts attention by methods other than crying 8. The nurse is planning play activities for a 2-month-old hospitalized infant to stimulate the auditory sense. Which activities should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Talk to the infant. b. Play a music box. c. Place a squeaky doll in the crib. d. Give the infant a small-handled clear rattle. MATCHING Match each neurologic reflex that appears in infancy to its description. a. Labyrinth righting b. Body righting c. Otolith righting d. Landau e. Parachute 1. When the body of an erect infant is tilted, the head is returned to an upright, erect position. 2. An infant in the prone or supine position is able to raise his or her head. 3. Turning the hips and shoulders to one side causes all the other body parts to follow. 4. When the infant is suspended in a horizontal prone position and suddenly thrust downward, the hands and fingers extend forward as if to protect against falling. 5. When the infant is suspended in a horizontal prone position, the head is raised and the legs and spine are extended. CHAPTER 12 2. What do the psychosocial developmental tasks of toddlerhood include? a. Development of a conscience b. Recognition of sex differences c. Ability to get along with age mates d. Ability to delay gratification 4. Parents of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says no to everything and has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held. What is the nurses best interpretation of this behavior? a. This is normal behavior for his age. b. This is unusual behavior for his age. c. He is not effectively coping with stress. d. He is showing he needs more attention. 5. A 17-month-old child should be expected to be in which stage, according to Piaget? a. Preoperations b. Concrete operations c. Tertiary circular reactions d. Secondary circular reactions 7. A toddler, age 16 months, falls down a few stairs. He gets up and scolds the stairs as if they caused him to fall. What is this an example of? a. Animism b. Ritualism c. Irreversibility d. Delayed cognitive development 8. What is a characteristic of a toddlers language development at age 18 months? a. Vocabulary of 25 words b. Use of holophrases c. Increasing level of understanding d. Approximately one third of speech understandable 9. Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 24-month-old child? a. Skips b. Broad jumps c. Rides tricycle d. Walks up and down stairs 10. What developmental characteristic does not occur until a child reaches age 2 1/2 years? a. Birth weight has doubled. b. Anterior fontanel is still open. c. Primary dentition is complete. d. Binocularity may be established. 13. A toddlers parent asks the nurse for suggestions on dealing with temper tantrums. What is the most appropriate recommendation? a. Punish the child. b. Explain to child that this is wrong. c. Leave the child alone until the tantrum is over. d. Remain close by the child but without eye contact. 17. A father tells the nurse that his daughter wants the same plate and cup used at every meal, even if they go to a restaurant. The nurse should explain that this is what? a. A sign the child is spoiled b. An attempt to exert unhealthy control c. Regression, which is common at this age d. Ritualism, an expected behavior at this age 20. What is the leading cause of death during the toddler period? a. Injuries b. Infectious diseases c. Childhood diseases d. Congenital disorders 25. The nurse is providing guidance strategies to a group of parents with toddlers at a community outreach program. Which statement by a parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. I should expect my 24-month-old child to express some signs of readiness for toilet training. b. I should be firm and structured when disciplining my 18-month-old child. c. I should expect my 12-month-old child to start to develop a fear of darkness and to need a security blanket. d. I should expect my 36-month-old child to understand time and proximity of events. 26. The nurse is assessing a toddlers visual acuity. Which visual acuity is considered acceptable during the toddler years? a. 20/20 b. 20/40 c. 20/50 d. 20/60 27. The nurse is teaching parents about toilet training. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. Bladder training is accomplished before bowel training. b. The mastery of skills required for toilet training is present at 18 months. c. By 12 months, the child is able to retain urine for up to 2 hours or longer. d. The physiologic ability to control the sphincters occurs between 18 and 24 months. 32. The nurse understands that which guideline should be followed to determine serving sizes for toddlers? a. 1/2 tbsp of solid food per year of age b. 1 tbsp of solid food per year of age c. 2 tbsp of solid food per year of age d. 2 1/2 tbsp of solid food per year of age MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The nurse is preparing a staff education program about growth and development of an 18-month-old toddler. Which characteristics should the nurse include in the staff education program? (Select all that apply.) a. Eats well with a spoon and cup b. Runs clumsily and can walk up stairs c. Points to common objects d. Builds a tower of three or four blocks e. Has a vocabulary of 300 words f. Dresses self in simple clothes 2. A parent asks the nurse, When will I know my child is ready for toilet training? The nurse should include what in the response? (Select all that apply.) a. The child should be able to stay dry for 1 hour. b. The child should be able to sit, walk, and squat. c. The child should have regular bowel movements. d. The child should express a willingness to please. 5. A toddler is in the sensorimotor, tertiary circular reactions stage of cognitive development. What behavior should the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Refers to self by pronoun b. Gestures up and down c. Able to insert round object into a hole d. Can find hidden objects but only in the first location e. Uses future-oriented words, such as tomorrow 6. The nurse is teaching a parent of an 18-month-old about developmental milestones associated with feeding. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. The child will begin to use a fork. b. The child will be able use a straw and cup. c. The child will be able to hold a cup with both hands. d. The child will be able to drink from a cup with a lid. e. The child will begin to use a spoon but may turn it before reaching the mouth. 9. What child behavior indicates to the nurse that temper tantrums have become a problem? (Select all that apply.) a. The child is 2 to 3 years old b. Tantrums occur at bedtime c. Tantrums occur past 5 years of age d. Tantrums last longer than 15 minutes e. Tantrums occur more than five times a day CHAPTER 13 1. In terms of fine motor development, what should the 3-year-old child be expected to do? a. Tie shoelaces. b. Copy (draw) a circle. c. Use scissors or a pencil very well. d. Draw a person with seven to nine parts. 3. In terms of cognitive development, a 5-year-old child should be expected to do which? a. Think abstractly. b. Use magical thinking. c. Understand conservation of matter. d. Understand another persons perspective. 6. A 4-year-old child tells the nurse that she doesnt want another blood sample drawn because I need all of my insides and I dont want anyone taking them out. What is the nurses best interpretation of this? a. The child is being overly dramatic. b. The child has a disturbed body image. c. Preschoolers have poorly defined body boundaries. d. Preschoolers normally have a good understanding of their bodies. 7. Which type of play is most typical of the preschool period? a. Team b. Parallel c. Solitary d. Associative 8. What characteristic best describes the language skills of a 3-year-old child? a. Asks meanings of words b. Follows directional commands c. Can describe an object according to its composition d. Talks incessantly regardless of whether anyone is listening 12. What dysfunctional speech pattern is a normal characteristic of the language development of a preschool child? a. Lisp b. Echolalia c. Stammering d. Repetition without meaning 16. During the preschool period, the emphasis of injury prevention should be placed on what? a. Limitation of physical activities b. Punishment for unsafe behaviors c. Constant vigilance and protection d. Teaching about safety and potential hazards A 3-year-old child exhibits a more stable appetite than during the toddler years and is more willing to try different foods. A 4-year-old child is imaginative and indulges in telling tall tales and may have an imaginary playmate; these are normal findings, not signs of stress. Also a 4-year-old child has an increasing curiosity in sexuality, which is not a sign of child abuse. A 5-year-old child is usually tranquil, not aggressive like a 4-year-old child. 19. The nurse is explaining average weight gain during the preschool years to a group of parents. Which average weight gain should the nurse suggest to the parents? a. 1 to 2 kg b. 2 to 3 kg c. 3 to 4 kg d. 4 to 5 kg 20. The nurse is planning to bring a preschool child a toy from the playroom. What toy is appropriate for this age group? a. Building blocks b. A 500-piece puzzle c. Paint by number picture d. Farm animals and equipment 21. The nurse is conducting an assessment of fine motor development in a 3-year-old child. Which is the expected drawing skill for this age? a. Can draw a complete stick figure b. Holds the instrument with the fist c. Can copy a triangle and diamond d. Can copy a circle and imitate a cross 23. The nurse is explaining the preconventional stage of moral development to a group of nursing students. What characterizes this stage? a. Children in this stage focus on following the rules. b. Children in this stage live up to social expectations and roles. c. Children in this stage have a concrete sense of justice and fairness. d. Children in this stage have little, if any, concern for why something is wrong. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. What developmental achievements are demonstrated by a 4-year-old child? (Select all that apply.) a. Cares for self totally b. Throws a ball overhead c. Has a vocabulary of 1500 words d. Can skip and hop on alternate feet e. Tends to be selfish and impatient f. Commonly has an imaginary playmate 5. What are sources of stress in preschoolers? (Select all that apply.) a. Shares possessions b. Damages or destroys objects c. May fear dogs or other animals d. Seems to be in perpetual motion e. May stutter or stumble over words 8. The nurse is teaching parents of a 3-year-old child about gross motor developmental milestones. What milestones should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Rides a tricycle b. Catches a ball reliably c. Jumps off the bottom step d. Stands on one foot for a few seconds e. Walks downstairs using alternate footing 9. The nurse is teaching parents of a 4-year-old child about fine motor developmental milestones. What milestones should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Can lace shoes b. Uses scissors successfully c. Builds a tower of nine or 10 cubes d. Builds a bridge with three cubes e. Adeptly places small pellets in a narrow-necked bottle 10. The nurse is teaching parents of a 3-year-old child about language developmental milestones. What milestones should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Asks many questions b. Names one or more colors c. Repeats sentence of six syllables d. Uses primarily telegraphic speech e. Has a vocabulary of 1500 words or more 11. The nurse is teaching parents of a 4-year-old child about socialization developmental milestones. What milestones should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Very independent b. Has mood swings c. Has better manners d. Eager to do things right e. Tends to be selfish and impatient CHAPTER 15 1. What statement accurately describes physical development during the school-age years? a. The childs weight almost triples. b. Muscles become functionally mature. c. Boys and girls double strength and physical capabilities. d. Fat gradually increases, which contributes to childrens heavier appearance. 2. The parents of 9-year-old twin children tell the nurse, They have filled up their bedroom with collections of rocks, shells, stamps, and bird nests. The nurse should recognize that this is which? a. Indicative of giftedness b. Indicative of typical twin behavior c. Characteristic of cognitive development at this age d. Characteristic of psychosocial development at this age 3. What statement characterizes moral development in the older school-age child? a. Rule violations are viewed in an isolated context. b. Judgments and rules become more absolute and authoritarian. c. The child remembers the rules but cannot understand the reasons behind them. d. The child is able to judge an act by the intentions that prompted it rather than just by the consequences. 4. An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for being bad. What should the nurse interpret this as? a. A common belief at this age b. Indicative of excessive family pressure c. Faith that forms the basis for most religions d. Suggestive of a failure to develop a conscience 6. What is descriptive of the social development of school-age children? a. Identification with peers is minimum. b. Children frequently have best friends. c. Boys and girls play equally with each other. d. Peer approval is not yet an influence for the child to conform. 7. What statement best describes the relationship school-age children have with their families? a. Ready to reject parental controls b. Desire to spend equal time with family and peers c. Need and want restrictions placed on their behavior by the family d. Peer group replaces the family as the primary influence in setting standards of behavior and rules 10. What is descriptive of the play of school-age children? a. They like to invent games, making up the rules as they go. b. Individuality in play is better tolerated than at earlier ages. c. Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging. d. Team play helps children learn the universal importance of competition and winning. 20. When teaching injury prevention during the school-age years, what should the nurse include? a. Teach children about the need to fear strangers. b. Teach basic rules of water safety. c. Avoid letting children cook in microwave ovens. d. Caution children against engaging in competitive sports. 2
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