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NR 283 PATHO QUIZ B in class - Chapter 5,6 & 7

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
a. albumin and fibrinogen.
b. growth factors and cell enzymes.
c. macrophages and neutrophils.
d. histamine and prostaglandins.

____ 2. The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
a. increased interstitial fluid.
b. production of complement.
c. a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area.
d. increased blood flow into the area.

____ 3. Systemic effects of severe inflammation include:
a. erythema and warmth.
b. loss of movement at the affected joint.
c. fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever.
d. abscess formation.

____ 4. The term leukocytosis means:
a. increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood.
b. decreased WBCs in the blood.
c. increased number of immature circulating leukocytes.
d. significant change in the proportions of WBCs.

____ 5. Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory
agent?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Prednisone
c. Aspirin
d. Ibuprofen

____ 6. The characteristic appearance of a full-thickness burn is:
a. painful with multiple blisters.
b. heavy bleeding.
c. red with some swelling.
d. dry, firm, charred, or hard white surface.

____ 7. Which of the following helps to localize and “wall off” the foreign material during an inflammatory
response?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Increased fluid
c. Fibrinogen
d. Antibodies

____ 8. Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:
a. bacilli.
b. diplococci.
c. staphylococci.
d. streptococci.

____ 9. How do antiviral drugs act?
a. They interfere with cell wall development.
b. They decrease cell membrane permeability.
c. They destroy new, immature viral particles.
d. They reduce the rate of viral replication.

____ 10. Fungi reproduce by:
1. budding.
2. extension of hyphae.
3. binary fission.

4. production of spores. a. 1, 2

b. 2, 4 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 2, 3, 4

____ 11. Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?
a. It exists in all areas of the body.
b. Different species inhabit various areas of the body.
c. It is of no benefit to the human host.
d. It consists only of bacteria.

____ 12. Host resistance is promoted by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. prescribed immunizations.
b. chronic respiratory disease.
c. vitamin and mineral supplements.
d. appropriate inflammatory or immune response.

____ 13. What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
a. To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate
b. To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
c. To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
d. To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication

____ 14. When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?
a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Allergic reaction
d. Septicemia

____ 15. Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
a. The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
b. It causes a common STD.
c. It possesses many flagella.
d. It is excreted in feces.

____ 16. Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?
a. It alters human chromosomes to cause manifestations.
b. It usually causes severe respiratory distress and high fever.
c. Infection is common in the elderly.
d. It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses.

____ 17. Which of the following is a function of interferons?
a. They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
b. They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection.
c. They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.
d. They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells.

____ 18. Humoral immunity is mediated by:
a. natural killer cells.
b. T lymphocytes (T cells).
c. B lymphocytes (B cells).
d. neutrophils.

____ 19. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
a. it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.
b. it is slower than the primary response and doesn’t change the antibody levels.

c. it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies.
d. it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.

____ 20. A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:
a. the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.
b. significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.
c. the individual has AIDS.
d. the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.

____ 21. Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients?
a. Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Wasting syndrome
c. Lymphoma
d. Polyarthritis

____ 22. What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS?
a. The virus has been identified in the blood and body fluids.
b. Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood.
c. HIV was found in lymphocytes.
d. Active infection has developed in the patient.

____ 23. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive?
a. No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range.

b. Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others.

c. Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.
d. Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication.

____ 24. Which of the following statements applies to the complement system?
a. It is activated by IgE.
b. It blocks the inflammatory response.
c. It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated.
d. It may destroy antibodies in the circulation.

____ 25. The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is:
a. HIV encephalopathy.
b. tuberculosis.
c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
d. Candida infection.

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