NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM
CORRECT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1.What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?
C. Antipsychotics
2.The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?
D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics
3.The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?
C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy.
4.Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression?
A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects.
4.The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient?
C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days
6.The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will the PMHNP select?
A. Lithium (Lithane)
7.The parents of a 7-year-old patient with ADHD are concerned about the effects of stimulants on their child. The parents prefer to start pharmacological treatment with a non-stimulant. Which medication will the PMHNP will most likely prescribe?
A. Strattera
8.The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD?
A. 8-year-old patient