ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024

Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.

At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.

In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.

All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.

When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.

Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.

Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.

One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.

Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.

In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.

Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.

In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.

Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.

Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.

When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.

The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.

When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.

To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.

Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.

A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.

Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.

A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.

Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.

The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.

Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.

The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.

The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.

When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.

It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.

What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.

To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.

According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.

The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.

What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.

Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.

Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.

Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.

Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.

What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.

Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.

The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.

The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its

%1 ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, and Study Guide 2024 %2%3 Deze set oefenvragen is ontworpen om u voor te bereiden op de ACHE BOG Exam, Board Exam, Practice Exam, en de Study Guide 2024. De vragen beslaan een breed scala aan onderwerpen binnen de gezondheidszorg en management, inclusief ethiek, financiële planning, personeelsbeheer, en strategische planning. Elke vraag wordt gevolgd door een gedetailleerd antwoord met rationale om uw begrip te vergroten en uw kennis te testen. %4---**ACHE BOG Exam**Q1: Quality of patient care can best be measured by:a. Carefully constructed written reports comparing different time periods.b. A review of incident reports.c. Reviewing the minutes of the medical/professional executive committee.d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.A1: d. A combination of statistical reports and direct supervision of patient care.Q2: The thrust of antitrust legislation as applied to the healthcare field is to:a. Contain cost.b. Contain rising cost of independent single unit hospital.c. Monitor the scope of health services provided in a given area.d. Protect the publics economic interest.A2: d. Protect the publics economic interest.Q3: A hospice may be described as a/an:a. Intermediate-care facility.b. Extended-care facility that specializes in the treatment of the chronically ill.c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.d. Interrelated group of healthcare services.A3: c. Facility where terminally ill patients can receive special attention.Q4: Which one of the following is the most important element of communication in contract management?a. Negotiating.b. Controlling.c. Directing.d. Feedback.A4: d. Feedback.Q5: To obtain the most objective evaluation of state-of-the-art computer technology, the healthcare executive should ultimately:a. Survey local computer users.b. Undertake a literature search.c. Rely upon the in-house management information systems committee.d. Utilize outside experts.A5: d. Utilize outside experts.Q6: The primary function of an extended-care unit is to provide:a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.b. Self-care facilities for ambulatory patients.c. Additional facilities for geriatric cases.d. More intensive nursing care for chronically ill patients.A6: a. Post-acute care services in a rehabilitation-oriented environment.Q7: Which one of the following conditions must be met for human subjects to be used in a medical research program?a. No suitable animal model exists for use instead of people.b. The research program has been approved by the medical staff.c. The research program has been approved by the governing authority.d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.A7: d. Risks should be clearly explained in understandable language to each individual subject.Q8: In developing a health promotion program for marketing to business, the most important factor is:a. Generation of sufficient additional revenue to justify potential risk.b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.c. Enhancement of the institutions image within the community.d. Achievement of institutional goals and missions by helping to ensure good health.A8: b. Development of a high-quality product to serve the needs and interests of the clientele.Q9: Controlling the cost of accounts receivables is heavily affected by:a. The time or length of the payment cycle.b. The dollar amount of credit granted to individuals.c. The total dollar amount of receivables carried on the books.d. Working capital management.A9: a. The time or length of the payment cycle.Q10: At this time of restriction and complexity in the healthcare environment, the process of strategic planning for the healthcare organization requires the organization to develop a plan that:a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.b. Meets the needs of its service area population.c. Is coordinated with the medical staff interests.d. Gives high priority to marketing.A10: a. Responds to the healthcare needs of the community.Q11: In achieving the goals of an organization, the most important management practice is:a. Allowing the line managers to determine their own goals.b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.c. Holding operational-level meetings to compare objectives.d. Establishing organizational objectives based on the goals of the management team.A11: b. Applying goals uniformly at all organizational levels.Q12: All of the following are essential components of strategic planning except:a. The corporate mission statement.b. Timetables for activity completion.c. Competitive analysis.d. Assessment of the external environment.A12: b. Timetables for activity completion.Q13: When data are scarce, the best method for forecasting is to use:a. Computer-based simulation methods.b. Time series analysis.c. Econometric forecasting.d. Qualitative technique.A13: d. Qualitative technique.Q14: Operational planning can be correctly defined as:a. A function of establishing the annual budget by accumulating departmental information.b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.c. An annual process of developing, evaluating, and implementing goals based on community needs.d. Determining the major types of services offered based on profit margins.A14: b. The process by which short-range objectives and actions are established and implemented in accordance with the strategic plan.Q15: Decisions concerning the development of alternative modes of service delivery are generally made upon recommendations of:a. The market research director to the CEO.b. Community leaders to the CEO.c. The CEO to the governing authority.d. The medical/professional staff to the governing authority.A15: c. The CEO to the governing authority.Q16: One of the best ways to determine the total market size and share of each competitor in that market is to:a. Survey the opinions of the sales force or the medical/professional staff.b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.c. Hire a consultant.d. Estimate the production capacity of each competitor.A16: b. Survey a stratified sample of patients/clients.Q17: Short-range planning is enhanced if a strategic plan has been adopted because:a. Potential programs can be eliminated easily if not part of the strategic plan.b. Use of space has already been determined.c. A frame of references is already in place.d. Operational problems can be quickly resolved.A17: c. A frame of references is already in place.Q18: In the field of healthcare services, which of the following trends has significantly increased the need to develop more comprehensive and more systemic credentialing processes in healthcare facilities:a. The increased number of independent healthcare practitioners.b. The expansion of governmental regulations covering the operation of the healthcare facilities.c. The growth of ambulatory healthcare services.d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.A18: d. The growth of liability of healthcare facilities for malpractice by health practitioners.Q19: Which of the following activities can best help identify the most efficient staffing patterns for a healthcare organization?a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.b. Review of industry standards by region.c. Desk audits of job descriptions.d. Frequent on-site visits to work locations.A19: a. Periodic job-analysis to determine productivity levels.Q20: In a sound human resources program, the primary purpose of the job classification system is to:a. Develop position descriptions for employees.b. Establish a total wage and salary administration program.c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.d. Define an effective organizational structure.A20: c. Rank jobs by kind and level of work performed.Q21: Which of the following statements best defines increased productivity?a. An increase in productivity occurs when the number of units of service rendered in a given year increases over the number rendered in the previous year.b. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the volume of number of units of service rendered.c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.d. An increase in productivity occurs when an increase occurs in the revenue from a given number of full-time equivalent employee.A21: c. An increase in productivity occurs when reduction occurs in the ratio of hours worked to the number of units of service rendered.Q22: Which of the following is the depreciation method that best recognizes changes in the general purchasing power of the dollar and/or changes in the replacement cost of specific assets?a. Declining-balance depreciation.b. Straight-line depreciation.c. Price-level depreciation.d. Sum of years digits depreciation.A22: c. Price-level depreciation.Q23: When third-party policies and programs impede the healthcare facilitys fiscal capacity to renovate and model its plant as routinely scheduled, the healthcare facility - to protect itself-should first:a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.b. Reduce the level of operating services.c. Limit the number of admissions from selected third-party payment sources.d. Resort to the regulatory agency to obtain a waiver.A23: a. Delay capital improvements until funds are available.Q24: The method referred to as value analysis is used in inventory control activities to:a. Make adequate substitutions for requisitioned items.b. Reduce the quantity of items issued to various departments.c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.d. Relate quantity and quality of items.A24: c. Reduce cost without impairing functional efficiency.Q25: When a computer system is being used for business records, confidentiality is most effectively maintained by:a. Periodic reviews by the internal auditor.b. Monitoring the activities of those employees who operate computer services.c. Restricting access to the information system.d. Restricting access to the computer area.A25: c. Restricting access to the information system.Q26: To evaluate changes in levels of revenue and expenses as a result of changes occurring during the year, management can:a. Use a step-down method.b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.c. Use the capital approach to budgeting.d. Project existing trends forward for one year.A26: b. Use the contribution margin approach to budgeting.Q27: Under generally accepted accounting standards, bad debts are reported as a/an:a. Operating expense.b. Deduction from net revenue.c. Contractual allowances.d. Deduction from gross revenue.A27: a. Operating expense.Q28: A case-mix cost allocation system that identifies cost associated with the final (as opposed to intermediate) output provides:a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.b. Managers with a systems device to deal with the problem of human resources allocation.c. Auditors with a better understanding of the financial status of the institution in a relationship to agreed-upon goals and objectives.d. Governing authorities with better insight into the future growth and development of healthcare facilities.A28: a. Managers with more accurate information about true costs and thus improves their ability to control.Q29: Formation of a sound inventory control system depends upon:a. Aging by item according to first-in/first-out protocols.b. Meeting demand and maximizing turnover.c. Maintaining sound fiscal controls based on utilization.d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.A29: d. Meeting demand and minimizing inventory cost.Q30: A management information system task force to plan for system design and implementation should, first of all, include:a. Medical records, financial management, nursing service.b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.c. Information systems consultants, CEO, financial management.d. Governing authority, medical staff, nursing service.A30: b. Managers of appropriate healthcare organization departments.Q31: Because quality of care is a primary concern, an effective information system must include:a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.b. Preparation and evaluation of statistical and financial reports, on a regular basis.c. Weekly reports regarding census data and cost per occupied bed.d. A monthly comparison of actual expenses to budgeted expenses, on a line-item basis.A31: a. Objective and subjective reporting methods, incorporating peer judgments about patient.Q32: The sole purpose of the medical/professional staff organization is to:a. Meet accreditation standards.b. Review the standards of patient care.c. Review the credentials of physicians applying for membership.d. Safeguard patient safety.A32: d. Safeguard patient safety.Q33: Incident reports should be initiated by:a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.b. Any person with direct patient care responsibilities.c. The department director or supervisor.d. The risk management/quality assurance coordinator.A33: a. A member of the medical/professional staff or by any employee.Q34: The establishment of an appropriate credentialing procedure for members of the medical/professional staff should ultimately be a decision of the:a. Entire medical/professional staff.b. Credentialing committee.c. Governing authority.d. Medical/professional executive committee.A34: c. Governing authority.Q35: The governing authority of a healthcare facility can terminate the privileges of any member of the medical/professional staff:a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.b. At any time, with or without due process.c. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional executive committee.d. Only if termination is recommended by the medical/professional staff.A35: a. At any time, it follows its own adopted procedures.Q36: When an acute healthcare facility is part of a parent-subsidiary type corporation, that facility typically is:a. The parent corporation.b. A holding company.c. A member of the association.d. A subsidiary.A36: d. A subsidiary.Q37: It is important for the CEO of a healthcare organization to represent the organization at state and regional associations and to other organizations in the community because:a. The organizations spokesman is the person who is most knowledgeable about the organization.b. The CEO can use the opportunity to explore external threats to the organization.c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.d. Consumer surveys indicate that, within the community, the CEO is the most visible spokesman for the organization.A37: c. These activities develop exchange relationships and are therefore crucial to the organization.Q38: What population factor is currently having the greatest impact on healthcare organization?a. Ethnic composition.b. Economic status.c. Geographic distribution.d. Age cohort.A38: d. Age cohort.Q39: To work effectively with the media, healthcare executives must:a. Be accessible at all times to the media.b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.c. Employ a public relations officer to control the release of all information.d. Issue press releases on a timely basis.A39: b. Increase their knowledge of - and sensitivity to- the medias function.---**Board Exam**Q40: According to the ACHEs Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is to:a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest scenarios.b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for inspections.d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.A40: d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions.Q41: The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change their management philosophy from:a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of processes.c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.d. Focusing on employees roles to focusing on process outcomes.A41: a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.Q42: What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the organization to continue double billing?a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct economic benefit.d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law.A42: b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive.Q43: Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine physicians clinical productivity?a. RVU.b. CMS.c. IPO.d. CPU.A43: a. RVU.Q44: Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?a. Charge-based.b. Cost-based.c. Prospective payment.d. Per diem.A44: c. Prospective payment.Q45: Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.c. Government owned healthcare organizations.d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations.A45: a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.Q46: Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?a. Land that is purchased for resale.b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.d. Medical supplies used for patient care.A46: c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.Q47: What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation.A47: a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.Q48: Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:a. Readily available on special board website.b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.A48: d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality.Q49: The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the following:a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.b. Support for assessing changing market needs.c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO.A49: c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.Q50: The first role of the governing body is to:a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its goals.b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its mission.d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance.A50: c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its