Make a practice exam of the following text: 1. Both males and females have accessory reproductive organs, including ducts through which gametes are carried. TRUE
A. are the male testes and female ovaries.
B. secrete sex hormones.
C. produce gametes.
D. are dormant until puberty.
E. All of the choices are correct.
3. In both males and females, primary sex organs called produce the gametes.
4. The male homologue to the labia majora is the
D. bulbourethral gland.
E. prostate gland.
5. Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting
A. luteinizing hormone.
B. estrogen or testosterone.
C. follicle-stimulating hormone.
D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
6. Prior to puberty, the anterior pituitary does not release FSH and LH. TRUE
7. The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the
C. anterior pituitary gland.
D. adrenal gland.
8. The perineum consists of an anterior
A. ischial tuberosity and a posterior anal ellipse.
B. urethral orifice and a posterior pubic crest.
C. false pelvis and a posterior true pelvis.
D. urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle.
E. pubic quadralateral and a posterior anal rhombus.
9. The anterior border to the perineum is the
B. pubic symphysis.
C. ischial tuberosity.
D. bulbospongiosus muscle.
10. The ischiocavernosus muscle is located within the urogenital triangle. TRUE
11. Human somatic cells contain only one pair of
C. homologous chromosomes.
D. sex chromosomes.
12. The X and Y chromosomes are considered homologous autosomes. FALSE
13. A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is
14. When a cell's genetic content is designated as 1n, the cell is said to be . haploid
15. A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained chromosomes.
16.When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is
A. two daughter cells that are diploid.
B. two daughter cells that are haploid.
C. four daughter cells that are diploid.
D. four daughter cells that are haploid.
17. Mitosis involves crossing over and the production of haploid daughter cells. FALSE
18. Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis?
A. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.
B. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
C. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.
D. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
19.The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as
A. crossing over, and it occurs in interphase.
B. crossing over, and it occurs in mitosis.
C. crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.
D. interphase, and it occurs in meiosis.
E. interphase, and it occurs in mitosis.
20. A replicated chromosome consists of two identical structures known as
B. sister chromatids.
21. Interphase occurs
A. prior to meiosis.
B. between meiosis I and meiosis II.
C. between anaphase I and telophase I.
D. between prophase I and prophase II.
E. between telophase II and cytokinesis.
22. When homologous replicated chromosomes pair up during meiosis, they form a
A. sister chromatid.
C. single-stranded chromosome.
23. The process that occurs during prophase I, during which tetrads are formed, is known as synapsis
24. Define the term "independent assortment" and indicate how this leads to diversity in the genetic content of gametes.
Independent assortment is described in the text as the random alignment of homologous chromosomes (maternal and paternal) along the equator during metaphase I of meiosis. Because the cellular division distributes the maternal and paternal chromosomes randomly, a wide variety of gametes are generated.
25. Meiosis I is a reduction division.
26. A reduction division is one in which
A. the chemical reactions of oxidation and reduction take place.
B. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.
C. one daughter cell is substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell.
D. the size of chromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.
27. Sister chromatids are pulled apart in
A. prophase I.
B. anaphase I.
D. prophase II.
E. anaphase II.
28. The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are
A. diploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes.
B. diploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.
C. haploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes.
D. haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.
29. The final products of the two meiotic divisions are four haploid daughter cells from an original diploid
30. Which cord or sheet of connective tissue attaches to the ovary at the hilum?
A. Suspensory ligament
B. Ovarian ligament
D. Broad ligament
E. Round ligament
31. Which is not correct regarding the ovaries?
A. Each ovary has an outer cortex and an inner medulla.
B. The ovaries are located lateral to the uterus.
C. The ovarian artery and vein join the ovary at its hilum.
D. The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium.
E. The tunica albuginea is deep to the germinal epithelium.
32. The most primitive type of ovarian follicle is a follicle. primordial
33. Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte?
A. Secondary follicle
B. Primary follicle
C. Mature follicle
D. Primordial follicle
E. Polar follicle
34. What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation? A. Corona radiata
B. Zona pellucida
C. Corpus albicans
D. Corpus luteum
Throughout childhood, primary oocytes are arrested in
A. prophase I.
B. anaphase I.
C. prophase II.
D. metaphase II.
E. metaphase I.
36. The volume of the antrum is largest in a follicle.
37. Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured follicle
38. Primary follicles form before birth.
39.In a female infant, the ovaries contain
A. primordial oocytes within primordial follicles.
B. primary oocytes within primordial follicles.
C. primordial oocytes within secondary follicles.
D. primary oocytes within corpora lutea.
E. primordial oocytes within corpora albicans.
40.A secondary oocyte arrests in
A. prophase I.
B. anaphase II.
C. prophase II.
D. metaphase II.
E. metaphase I.
41. How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte?
42. What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1?
A. Luteal, follicular, ovulation
B. Follicular, luteal, ovulation
C. Follicular, ovulation, luteal
D. Ovulation, follicular, luteal
E. Ovulation, luteal, follicular
43.Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of
44.Inhibin is secreted by
A. uterine lining cells, and it inhibits development of ovarian follicles.
B. follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.
C. the anterior pituitary, and it inhibits GnRH production.
D. the posterior pituitary, and it inhibits ovulation.
E. hypothalamic cells, and it inhibits LH production.
45. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen.
46.Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days
47. FSH facilitates the development of a primary follicle, but estrogen released by a primary follicle inhibits production of GnRH, LH, and FSH.
48.The lateral margin of the uterine tube, which bears the fimbriae, is called the
E. uterine part.
A. are extensions of the ovarian ligament.
B. line the ampulla of the uterine tube.
C. enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.
D. are sloughed off during menstruation.
E. assist in the movement of sperm through the female reproductive tract.
50. The normal site of fertilization is the
B. body of the uterus.
C. fundus of the uterus.
D. ampulla of the uterine tube.
E. uterine part of the uterine tube.
51. What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube, beginning at the ovary?
A. Infundibulum - isthmus - ampulla - uterine part
B. Uterine part - infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus
C. Ampulla - infundibulum - uterine part - isthmus
D. Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part
E. Uterine part - isthmus - ampulla - infundibulum
52. Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not, the epithelium within both organs is categorized as
A. pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
B. simple columnar epithelium.
C. nonkeratinized squamous epithelium.
D. stratified cuboidal epithelium.
E. simple cuboidal epithelium.
53. Which is not a uterine function?
A. Protection and support of developing embryo
B. Usual site of fertilization
C. Site of implantation
D. Muscle contraction for labor and delivery
E. Passageway for sperm
54. Which does not provide structural support for the uterus?
A. Round ligament
B. Transverse cervical ligament
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. Uterine ligament
E. Urogenital diaphragm
55.The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the
56.The external os is the
A. opening of the cervix into the vagina.
B. inferior portion of the central cavity.
C. bone that supports the uterus during pregnancy.
D. uterine tube attachment site.
E. primary suspensory ligament for the uterus.
57.The myometrium of the uterus is composed of
A. skeletal muscle.
B. mucous membrane.
C. fibrous connective tissue.
D. loose connective tissue.
E. smooth muscle.
58. What fibromuscular structure is about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal?
A. Fallopian tube
59.The hymen is located
A. at the cervix.
B. near the fundus of the uterus.
C. at the superior end of the vagina.
D. near the vaginal orifice.
E. at the external urethral sphincter.
60. Menarche is
A. the first four days of menstruation.
B. a females first menstrual cycle.
C. the stage immediately preceding menopause.
D. marked by a dramatic decline in androgen secretion.
E. the final phase of the uterine cycle.
61. Which layer of the uterine wall is sloughed off during menstruation?
B. Basal layer of endometrium
D. Functional layer of endometrium
62. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with
B. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.
D. the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.
63. What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle, beginning with day 1?
A. Menstrual - proliferative - secretory
B. Proliferative - secretory - menstrual
C. Secretory - proliferative - menstrual
D. Menstrual - secretory - proliferative
E. Proliferative - menstrual - secretory
64. Estrogen levels rise during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, and estrogen assists with the development of the dominant follicle.
65. Although the length of the menstrual cycle varies between women, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the phase is constant in length.
66. Progesterone levels are highest during the phase.
67. Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands?
B. Vestibular bulb
C. Mons pubis
D. Labia minora
68. Which is not part of the vulva?
A. Mons pubis
C. Labia majora
D. Labia minora
69. The fold of the labia minora that forms a hood over the clitoris is the . prepuce
70.The secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female are the
A. lactiferous sinuses.
B. lactiferous ducts.
D. areolar glands.
E. Bartholin glands.
71. The channels that convey milk from the mammary glands to the nipples are called ducts. lactiferous
72.The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is
73. The anterior pituitary hormone that facilitates milk production is . prolactin
74. During the excitement phase of the female sexual response, the uterus shifts to a more position.
75. During female sexual excitement, the mammary glands, clitoris, and labia become engorged with blood.
76.The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to
A. attach the penis to the body wall.
B. produce erections.
C. regulate the temperature of the testes.
D. help the testes descend into the scrotum prior to birth.
E. move sperm along the ductus deferens.
77.The ridge that is visible externally along the midline of the scrotum is called the
D. tunica albuginea.
E. scrotal cord.
78. Which of the following is a thin layer of smooth muscle just beneath the skin of the scrotum? A. Raphe
C. Tunica vaginalis
D. Dartos muscle
E. Inguinal muscle
79. Which structure is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity?
A. Tunica vaginalis
B. Perineal raphe
C. Spermatic cord
D. Tunica albuginea
E. Mediastinum testis
80.Sperm are produced in the
A. rete testis.
B. seminiferous tubules.
D. seminal vesicles.
E. efferent ductules.
81. The interstitial cells in the testes
A. undergo mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes.
B. support and protect the developing sperm cells.
C. secrete testosterone.
D. convert fructose to glucose to nourish the sperm.
E. form the lining of the seminiferous tubules.
82.Developing sperm cells are protected by a blood-testis barrier formed by
A. connective tissue septa.
B. interstitial spaces.
C. Leydig cells.
D. sustentacular cells.
83. Which is not true about spermatogenesis?
A. The process includes two meiotic divisions.
B. The final stage of the process is called spermiogenesis. C. Mature spermatozoa are haploid (n=23).
D. Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a mans life.
E. The process takes place in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.
84. What part of a spermatozoon contains the nuclear material?
85.The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are
b: primary spermatocyte
e: secondary spermatocyte
What is the correct order of appearance of these stages?
A. b, e, c, d, a
B. c, e, d, a, b
C. c, b, e, a, d
D. a, c, b, e, d
E. d, b, c, e, a
86.The acrosome cap contains
B. nutrients to sustain the sperm.
C. enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.
D. mitochondria to provide energy for movement.
E. buffers to neutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.
87. How many spermatozoa ultimately develop from each primary spermatocyte?
88. The final stage of spermatogenesis, during which spermatids develop into mature sperm, is known as . spermiogenesis
89. In men, LH stimulates
A. hypothalamic cells to secrete GnRH.
B. interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.
C. anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH.
D. sustentacular cells to secrete testosterone.
E. spermatogenic cells to secrete ABP.
90.When comparing gamete production in males and females, males produce
A. more gametes that are larger in size.
B. more gametes that are smaller in size.
C. fewer gametes that are larger in size.
D. fewer gametes that are smaller in size.
91. Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature?
B. Rete testis
C. Ductus deferens
D. Seminiferous tubules
E. Efferent ductules
92. Which structure is not found in both males and females?
B. Corpora cavernosa
C. Tunica albuginea
E. Vestibular gland
93.The rete testis
A. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules.
B. is the nerve plexus that supplies the testis.
C. is a venous network that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis. D. transports seminal fluid to the efferent ductules.
E. is the site of spermiogenesis.
94.The structures of the male reproductive tract are
a: ductus deferens
d: ejaculatory duct
What is the order in which sperm passes through these structures from the testes to the penis?
A. a, b, c, e, d
B. c, a, e, d, b
C. a, c, e, b, d
D. c, a, b, d, e
E. d, a, c, e, b
95.The ejaculatory duct is formed by the
A. ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle.
B. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland.
C. ampulla and the distal portions of the bulbourethral glands.
D. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. E. ampulla and the prostatic urethra.
96. Efferent ductules contain cilia that propel sperm toward the epididymis. TRUE
97. Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra?
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Bulbourethral gland
C. Prostate gland
D. Cowpers gland
E. Urethral gland
98. Which gland secretes a fluid containing fructose?
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Bulbourethral gland
C. Vestibular gland
D. Prostate gland
E. Urethral gland
99. Which of the following is not a component of seminal fluid?
B. Citric acid
100. Which of these male reproductive structures is unpaired (meaning there is only one in the body)?
B. Bulbourethral gland
C. Prostate gland
D. Seminal vesicle
E. Corpus cavernosum
101. These tubuloalveolar glands produce a clear, viscous mucin that serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.
A. Seminal vesicles
B. Prostate glands
C. Bulbourethral glands
D. Areolar glands
102.Which of the following is true?
A. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.
B. Seminal fluid is composed of semen and sperm.
C. Sperm are composed of seminal fluid within a cell membrane.
D. The three ingredients of ejaculate are sperm, semen, and prostate-specific antigen.
103. The corpora cavernosa extend within the glans of the penis.
104. The external urethral orifice is found at the of the penis.
D. corpus cavernosum
105. An erection of the penis is caused by
A. semen pressure from the testes and ductus deferens.
B. muscle flexion of the penile muscles.
C. increased secretions of lymph into the spongy tissue.
D. blood filling the erectile bodies and compressing the veins.
E. ejaculatory muscles.
106. The nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of
A. sympathetic, nitric oxide
B. sympathetic, norepinephrine
C. parasympathetic, nitric oxide
D. parasympathetic, norepinephrine
E. somatic, acetylcholine
107. During orgasm, the ductus deferens undergoes
A. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder relaxes.
B. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.
C. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter contracts.
D. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter becomes engorged with blood.
108. During the resolution phase, the central artery of the penis decreases in diameter. TRUE
109.In males, the region on the Y chromosome initiates male phenotypic development.
110. The expression of the gene results in the production of proteins that stimulate synthesis of androgens that initiate development af a male phenotype.
111. The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's
A. gender identity.
B. genetic sex.
C. phenotypic sex.
D. genotypic sex.
Short Answer Questions
112. Someone born with an inherited condition known as adrenal hyperplasia might have two X chromosomes but genitalia that resemble those of a male. Explain the effects on the individual's phenotypic and genotypic sex.
Because a genetic mutation led to excessive production of androgens in the fetus, the individual's genetic sex is female, but the individual's phenotypic sex could be considered ambiguous or male.
113. The changes that occur in a womans body at menopause are due to
A. atrophy of the thermoregulatory center of the hypothalamus.
B. reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone.
C. increased production of androgens by the adrenal gland.
D. depletion of oocyte supply.
E. fluid retention that disrupts the osmotic balance of the body.
114. When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for , she is said to be in menopause.
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
E. 18 months
115. During menopause, the vaginal wall becomes , and hormonal changes lead to risk of heart disease.
A. thicker; increased
B. thicker; decreased
C. thinner; increased
D. thinner; decreased
116. Which is not considered to be a change associated with aging in males? A. Erectile dysfunction
C. Decreased testosterone levels
D. Prostate enlargement
E. Termination of spermatogenesis
117. During development, the ducts form the female duct system.
118. Male embryos develop both Wolffian and Mullerian ducts, but only the Wolffian ducts remain in the male fetus.
119. What structures fuse during female development to form the uterus?
A. The superior ends of the mesonephric ducts
B. The anterior ends of the Wolffian ducts
C. The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts
D. The posterior ends of the gubernaculum
120. During fetal development, the vagina forms from the sinus. urogenital
121. Paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone is present.
122. In females, the genital tubercle forms the
C. labia majora.
D. labia minora.
123. In males, the labioscrotal swellings form the
B. scrotum and testes.
C.scrotum and root of the penis.
D. scrotum and dorsal side of the penis.
E. scrotum and ventral side of the penis.
124. Anti-Mullerian hormone is secreted by
A. ovarian follicular cells.
B. primary spermatocytes.
C. sustentacular cells.
D. interstitial cells.
E. paramesonephric cells.
125. The external genitalia do not become clearly differentiated until about week of development. A. 6
126. Describe how internal reproductive structures develop. What genetic factors determine whether development proceeds in a male or female manner? What ducts are formed in male and female embryos and fetuses?
Expression of SRY from the Y chromosome causes Sertoli cells to secrete AMH, which leads to degeneration of the paramesonpheric ducts and continued development of Wolffian ducts to form the epididymis and ductus deferens. In the absence of SRY proteins, mesonephric ducts degenerate and paramesonephric ducts continue to develop helping to form the uterus and uterine tubes.
127. This figure shows a posterior view of the organs of the female reproductive system. Which number indicates the ovarian ligament?
134. The testes are the male gametes.
135. Production of new primary oocytes by mitosis continues throughout a womans life. FALSE
136. The corpus luteum secretes the hormones estrogen and progesterone. TRUE
137. Movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube is due to peristalsis and ciliary action. TRUE
138. The clitoris is homologous to the penis.
139. The dartos muscle is composed of smooth muscle; the cremaster muscle is composed of skeletal muscle. TRUE
140. Sperm begin to exhibit motility once they exit the seminiferous tubules. FALSE
141. An erection is the result of parasympathetic innervation, and ejaculation is the result of sympathetic innervation.
142. The uterine tubes are covered and suspended by a superior portion of the broad ligament called the . mesosalpinx
143. Normally, the uterus is angled anterosuperiorly within the body, a position referred to as . anteverted
144. The cells support, nourish, and protect developing sperm cells. sustentacular
145. The is a comma-shaped structure that lies on the surface of the testis, and includes a head, body, and tail. epididymis
146. Decreased testosterone levels in males in their 50s signal a change called the male . climacteric. The practice exam must be written in theEnglish language. Below are the answers. The number of questions that the practice exam must contain is unlimited.
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