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Add to cartThe following are low vision Aid EXCEPT
A. High illumination
B. High plus lenses
C. Sonar sensor cane
D. Talking drum
Which of the following group of patients have the propensity to bleed during ocular surgery
A. Anaemic patients
B. Diabetes patients
C. Renal patients
D. Hypertensive patients
The following drugs can be administered sub-conjunctivally EXCEPT
A. Sosegon
B. Lignocane
C. Xylocane
D. Depomedrol
The normal pH of an ophthalmic drug is
A. 5.2 – 5.4
B. 6.2 – 6.4
C. 7.2 - 7.4
D. 8.2 – 8.4
Electrolysis is a treatment option for the following conditions EXCEPT
A. Distichiasis
B. Stye
C. Ptosis
D. Proptosis
First dressing for cataract surgery is usually done at
A. 12 hours post operatively
B. 24 hours post operatively
C. 36 hours post operatively
D. 48 hours post operatively
Hot application is contraindicated in
A. Corneal ulcer
B. Acute glaucoma
C. Purulent conjunctivitis
D. Orbital cellulitis
The following may lead to sudden loss of vision EXCEPT
A. Retina artery conclusion
B. Papilitis
C. Diabetic neuropathy
D. Traumatic optic nerve
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This document serves as a structured compilation of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) aimed at assessing and reinforcing knowledge in ophthalmic nursing. It covers a broad spectrum of topics including ocular anatomy, pathology, diagnostic procedures, pharmacology, surgical practices, and patient care. Designed for nursing and medical students, as well as professionals preparing for certification or continuing education, the content emphasizes clinically relevant knowledge through carefully curated questions and correct answers. By providing an accessible and thorough review of key concepts, this resource aids in both self-assessment and academic instruction in the field of ophthalmology.
The following are low vision Aid EXCEPT
A. High illumination
B. High plus lenses
C. Sonar sensor cane
D. Talking drum
Which of the following group of patients have the propensity to bleed during ocular surgery
A. Anaemic patients
B. Diabetes patients
C. Renal patients
D. Hypertensive patients
The following drugs can be administered sub-conjunctivally EXCEPT
A. Sosegon
B. Lignocane
C. Xylocane
D. Depomedrol
The normal pH of an ophthalmic drug is
A. 5.2 – 5.4
B. 6.2 – 6.4
C. 7.2 - 7.4
D. 8.2 – 8.4
Electrolysis is a treatment option for the following conditions EXCEPT
A. Distichiasis
B. Stye
C. Ptosis
D. Proptosis
First dressing for cataract surgery is usually done at
A. 12 hours post operatively
B. 24 hours post operatively
C. 36 hours post operatively
D. 48 hours post operatively
Hot application is contraindicated in
A. Corneal ulcer
B. Acute glaucoma
C. Purulent conjunctivitis
D. Orbital cellulitis
The following may lead to sudden loss of vision EXCEPT
A. Retina artery conclusion
B. Papilitis
C. Diabetic neuropathy
D. Traumatic optic nerve
Black spot floating in front of the eye is a clinical manifestation of
A. Iritis
B. Choroiditis
C. Endophthalmitis
D. Panophthalmitis
How many weeks will it take the eye lashes to re-grow after epilation
A. 5 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 10 weeks
Hyperopia is corrected with
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Diverging lens
D. Concrete lens
The site of lesion in photo- ophthalmia is the
A. Retina
B. Cornea
C. Vitreous
D. Optic nerve
The most common cause of hypopyon is
A. Pneumococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Moraxella
D. Gonococcus
Which of the following is a degenerative condition of the cornea?
A. Arcus senilis
B. Concretion
C. Pemphigus
D. Acne rosacea
Central retinal artery occlusion is usually caused by
A. A tumour of the optic disc
B. A thrombus
C. An embolus
D. Anaemia
A process by which a patient is assessed upon arrival to determine the urgency of the problem and treatment is called
A. An emergency chart
B. An option chart
C. A triage
D. A universal care
The most common type of retinal detachment is
A. Exudative retinal detachment
B. Traction retinal detachment
C. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
D. Conductive retinal detachment
Treatment of severe exophthalmos which does not respond to medical treatment is
A. Compression
B. Decompression
C. Recompression
D. Enucleation
ANSWER: B
When viewed through the pupil, the following are the landmarks of the retina EXCEPT
A. Optic disc
B. Retinal vessels.
C. Macula.
D. Optic nerve
The following are Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) related disorders which can lead to visual impairment EXCEPT
A. Kaposi’s sarcoma.
B. Herpes Zoster ophthalmicus.
C. Grave disease.
D. Cyteomegalovirus
ANSWER: D
The following are vascular disorder which may lead to visual impairment EXCEPT
A. Cardiovascular accident.
B. Diabetic retinopathy.
C. Hypertension.
D. Sickle cell disease
ANSWER: A
The following are common refractive surgery EXCEPT
A. Radial keratotomy
B. Incision keratotomy.
C. Intraocular lens enucleation.
D. Lasaer-in-keratomileusis.
Alkaline burn/ agents on the eye causes
A. Dilatation of the cornea.
B. Relaxation of the cornea
C. Coagulation of the cornea
D. Fluid on the cornea.
The risk factors associated with cataracts include
A. Diet rich in carbohydrate.
B. Exercise
C. Sex
D. Relax.
The eye keeps its shape because of intraocular pressure exerted by the
A. Optic nerve.
B. Vitreous body.
C. Aqueous fluid.
D. Viterous body and aqueous fluid.
The central retinal artery and vein are encased in the
A. Optic nerve.
B. Optic chiasma.
C. Orbital cavity.
D. Vitreous body.
It is possible to see with only one eye but
A. Two dimensional vision will be impaired
B. Three dimensional vision will be impaired
C. One dimensional vision will be impaired
D. Four dimensional vision will impaired
The size of the pupil is controlled by the
A. Peripheral nervous system
B. Central nervous system
C. Autonomic nervous system
D. The amount of blood supply to the eye.
In order to focus on near objects, the eye must make the following adjustments EXCEPT
A. Convergence.
B. Changing the power of the lens
C. Constriction of the pupil
D. Dilatation
Accommodation to near or distant vision is under
A. Involuntary control
B. Voluntary control
C. Blood supply
D. Nerve supply
Binocular or stereoscopic vision enables
A. Involuntary control
B. Voluntary control
C. Blood supply
D. Nerve supply
Rods outnumbered Cones in the retina by about
A. 10 to 1
B. 12 to 1
C. 14 to 1
D. 16 to 1
When exposed to bright light, the within the sensitive rods is accompanied by
A. Dilated
B. Constricte
C. Degraded
D. Occluded
Pulsating proptosis is seen in
A. Orbital varicose vein
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Arteriovenous aneurysm
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
The most dangerous complication of orbital cellulitis is
A. Diplopia
B. Proptosis
C. Abscess formation
D. Cerebral involvement.
One of the general principles that should be followed in all ophthalmic nursing procedure
A. Always ask for an assistant
B. Obtain consent for surgery
C. Talk to patient at all times during the procedure
D. Explain to patient what you want to do
The ideal dressing pack consists of
A. 6 lint square, 2 eye pads, swabs
B. 8 lint square, 2 eye pads, swabs
C. 4 lint square, 2 eye pads, swabs
D. 3 lint square, 2 eye pads, swabs
After catatract surgery, the Nurse should advice the patient to
A. Carry out eye exercise
B. Lie on supine position with the head immobilized
C. Refrain from vigorous brushing of teeth and hair
D. Do coughing and deep breathing exercise
The following are used to assess visual field of a patient with glaucoma EXCEPT
A. Djerrum screen
B. Confrontation test
C. Perimeter
D. Sheridan- Gardiner test
Undine is used for
A. Eye dressing
B. Eye irrigation
C. Lacrimal washout
D. Anterrior chamber washout
Electrolysis treatment option for
E. Proptosis
F. Ptosis
G. Style
H. Distichiasis
Degenerative condition of the cornea include
A. Arcus senilis
B. Acne rosacea
C. Pemphigus
D. Concretion
The following bacteria are commonly found in eye infection EXCEPT
A. Staphlococcus aureus
B. Maraxella lacunata
C. Neisseria gonorrhea
D. Haemophinus aegyptus.
The average haemoglobin (Hb) count in an adult is
A. 7 – 11 g
B. 12 – 16g
C. 17 – 21g
D. 22 – 26g
The most dangerous complication of cellulitis is
A. Abscess formation
B. Proptosis
C. Diplopia
D. Cerebral involvement
Amsler Grid is a test used for patient with
A. Ciliary body degeneration
B. Lens degeneration
C. Cornea degeneration
D. Macular degeneration
Slit- lamp enables the Nurse to examine the eye with magnification of
A. 5 to 10 times the real image
B. 5 to 20 times the real image
C. 10 to 20 times the real image
D. 10 to 40 times the real image
Intraocular Pressure (IOP) is determined by the following EXCEPT
A. The rate of aqueous production
B. The resistance encountered by the aqueous humour as it flows out of the passage
C. The venous pressure of the episcleral vein that drain into the anterior ciliary vein
D. The venous pressure of the episcleral into the anterior ciliary vein.
51. The most common tumour of the lacrimal gland is the
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Mixed tumour
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Malignant melanoma
52. Pre- auricular adenopathy is additional or common feature of
A. Chlamydia conjunctivitis
B. Viral conjunctivitis
C. Bacterial conjunctivitis
D. Allergic conjunctivitis
Which of the following is a component of school health services related to environmental health?
A. Vision and hearing screenings
B. Dental health care
C. Healthy school environment
D. Emergency preparedness
Which of the following is an essential component of primary health care for children of school age?
A. Mental health screening
B. Physical therapy services
C. Immunizations
D. Reproductive health
The level of prevention that focuses on early detection of diseases is
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Palliative care
The component of the primary health that focuses on addressing the social determinants of health is
A. Curative services
B. Palliative care
C. Health promotion
D. Rehabilitation services
What is the primary focus of primary health care
A. Specialized care
B. Inpatient care
C. Preventive care
D. Emergency care
Which of the following is not a characteristic of primary health care?
A. Comprehensive care
B. Continuity of care
C. Costly care
D. Coordination of care
The following are the components of school health programme except
A. School health services
B. Healthy school environment
C. Children must be healthy to be educated and must educated to be healthy
D. school counseling, psychological and social services
The school eye health consists of the following components except
A. Eye health education
B. Visual assessment
C. Primary eye care services
D. Eye health information
Community mobilization is defined as
A. The process of organizing community events
B. The process of engaging empowering members
C. The securing of fund for community projects
D. The process of mobilizing government resources for the community
The goal of community mobilization is to
A. Increase community awareness
B. Create community leaders
C. Bring about positive social change
D. Compete with other communities
Which of the following is a key principle of community mobilization?
A. Top-down decision making
B. Professional-led initiatives
C. Empowerment and participation
D. External intervention and control
The role of community leaders in community mobilization is to
A. Enforce rules and regulations
B. Secure funding for community projects
C. Represent and advocate for the community interests
D. Control and dominate community discussions and decisions
One of the following is a potential challenge to community mobilization
A. Decrease community empowerment
B. Limited community involvement
C. Increased dependency on external resources
D. Centralized decision-making
The ideal material for eye pad is
A. cotton wool
B. gauze
C. orange stick
D. all of the above
The ability to answer for your actions is known as
A. Confidentiality
B. Accountability
C. Advocacy
D. Veracity
The most important stage of the nursing process is
A. Evaluation
B. Assessment
C. Planning
D. Implementation
The duty to protect privileged information is called
A. Ethics
B. Morals
C. Confidentiality
D. Honesty
Informed consent is a method that promotes
A. Confidence
B. Justice
C. Autonomy
D. Veracity
To respect a patient's personal space, the nurse:
A. Avoids communication
B. Ensures the curtains are pulled around the patient's bed
C. Stands 2 metres away from the bed
D. Explains nursing care and procedures
The largest part of the cornea structure is the
A. Endothelium
B. Cornea stroma
C. Descemen membrane
D. Epithelium
Besides accommodation, the lens also
A. Correct weak astigmatism
B. Focuses on distant objects
C. Filters the aqueous
D. Filters ultra-violet ray
Which of the following muscles help in the blinking of the lid
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Levator palpebra superioris
C. Currugator muscle
D. Orbicularis oculi
Retina developed from the
A. Surface ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Neuraectoderm
D. Optic vesicle
Tarsal plate is situated in the
A. Eyebrow
B. Eyelids
C. Lacrimal apparatus
D. Conjunctiva
The following describes the nursing management of hyphaema EXCEPT
A. Bed rest
B. Pad the eye
C. Psychological care
D. Viscoelastic therapy
Ethical principles are enshrined in the Nigerian constitution as
A. Legal effect
B. Fundamental rights
C. Bill of right
D. Legal backing
A strong defense under emergency in litigation in the court of law is
A. good Samaritan law
B. off duty nurse
C. documentation
D. res ipsa loquitor
One of these is the basis of all ethical principle
A. principle of individual freedom
B. principle of honesty
C. principle of autonomy
D. principle of life
Objectives of ophthalmic anaesthesia are as follows EXCEPT
A. Akanesia
B. Analgesia
C. Anaesthesia
D. Amnesia
Regional ophthalmic anaesthesia could be achieved through the following routes EXCEPT
A. Intraconal
B. Periconal
C. Retrobulbar
D. Intrathecal
Amethocaine belong to the group of ophthalmic anesthetic called
A. Esters
B. Amides
C. Quinolones
D. relaxants
an example of high potency and lond duration local anaesthetic agent is
A. procaine
B. chloroprocaine
C. tetracaine (amethocaine)
D. lidocaine (lignocaine)
The choice of ophthalmic regional anaesthesia is determined by the following EXCEPT
A. Patient condition
B. Surgeon choice
C. Type of surgery
D. Relative choice
In subconjuctival injection, the choice of needle that is atraumatic is
A. 21 gauge
B. 22 gauge
C. 23 gauge
D. 25 gauge
Retinoblastoma is defined as
A. Malignant tumour of the melanin cells
B. Malignant tumour of the keratin cells
C. Malignant tumour of the photoreceptor cells
D. Malignant tumour of the epithelial cells
The point where the nasal fibre from the two eyes decussate is known as
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic chiasma
C. Optic nerve head
D. Optic foramen
A traumatic chronic inflammatory condition of one eye that eventually affect the other eye known as
A. Panuveitis
B. Panophthalmitis
C. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
D. Pars-planitis
Which of the following is the primary function of the medial rectus muscles
A. Depression
B. Abduction
C. Adduction
D. Elevation
The study of what is right and good with respect to good conduct and character is known as
A. Law
B. Standard
C. Ethics
D. morality
Vitamin A (retinol) is a fat soluble vitamin, its deficiency can cause the following condition EXCEPT
A. Conjunctival xerosis
B. Phthisis bulbi
C. Nylactopia
D. Corneal xerosis
Problem-solving involves identification of
A. Many solution and selecting two
B. Possible solutions and utilizing
C. Single solution and utilizing it
D. Possible solutions and selecting the best
The leading cause of blindness globally is
A. Glaucoma
B. Trachoma
C. Cataract
D. Retina detachment
The earliest feature of xeropthalmia is
A. Dry eye
B. Night blindness
C. Bitot s spot
D. Conjuctival xerosis
The term anisiometropia indicates
A. ageing process
B. refractive error
C. short vision
D. long vision
Which is the most common complication of high myopia
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Retina detachment
D. Haemorrhage
Bitot’s spot is a feature associated with deficiency of vitamin
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Which of the following is a composition of the crystalline lens
A. Urea
B. Acetylcholine
C. Bicarbonate
D. Glutathione
The volume of an adult eyeball is
A. 5.6 ml
B. 6.5 ml
C. 7 ml
D. 8 ml
The doctrine applicable to cases where there is prima facie evidence of negligence is a case of action speak for itself , this is known as
A. Habeas corpus
B. Respondeat superior
C. Res ipsa loquitor
D. Misdemeanors
The following factually describe trespass to person EXCEPT
A. Battering
B. Assault
C. False imprisonment
D. Suit