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    Explain how the structure of DNA is related to its functions (6 marks) - ANSWER - sugar-phosphate (backbonedouble stranded/helix so provides strength/stability/protects bases/protects hydrogen bonds - long/large molecule so can store lots of information - helix/coiled so compact - base sequence allows information to be stored/ base sequence codes for amino acids/protein - double stranded so replication can occur semi-conservatively/strands can act as templates/complementary base pairing/A-T and G-C so accurate replication/identical copies can be made - (weak) hydrogen bonds for replication/ unzipping/ strand separation/ many hydrogen bonds so stable/strong Papaya plants reproduce sexually by means of seeds. Papaya plants grown from seeds are very variable in their yield. Explain why. (2 marks) - ANSWER - meiosis/independent assortment/crossing over - (fusion of) genetically different gametes/random fertilisation

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    A 28-year-old G1P0 woman presents for her first prenatal visit following confirmation of pregnancy. The nurse practitioner is educating the patient on the importance of prenatal care. Which of the following is the best example of anticipatory guidance provided by the nurse practitioner during this visit? - ANSWER Educating the patient about the mental and physical changes her body will undergo during pregnancy and delivery Anticipatory guidance, also known as preventive counseling, is a proactive approach in which clinicians offer advice to prevent potential issues from arising in the future.

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    What sense does not have specialized sense organs? - ANSWER Touch What senses contain specialized receptor cells via specialized somatic and visceral afferents? - ANSWER A&C (Smell and Equilibrium) The posterior portion of the outer fibrous layer of the eye is called - ANSWER Sclera The outer fibrous layer of the eye includes the: - ANSWER Sclera and cornea What portion of the eye supplies blood supply to the other layers of the eye? - ANSWER Choroid (the middle layer) True or false: Cones operate best in dim light - ANSWER False True or false: The more numerous type of photoreceptors are rods? - ANSWER True What is the correct order of how light passes through the eye? - ANSWER Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, retina

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    The Appraisal Foundation has the authority to enforce the requirements of USPAP. - ANSWER False Currently, the boards within the Appraisal Foundation include: - ANSWER Appraisal Standards Board, Appraisal Qualifications Board, Board of Trustees Which Foundation board is responsible for USPAP? - ANSWER Appraisal Standards Board Qualification criteria for appraiser certification and recertification are disseminated to state appraisal boards by the: - ANSWER Appraisal Qualifications Board Which entity is responsible for establishing education and experience requirements for licensing and certification of appraisers? - ANSWER Appraisal Qualifications Board Which entity appoints members of the AQB and ASB? - ANSWER Board of Trustees

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    A 70-year-old male client has been admitted to a hospital for the treatment of a recent hemorrhagic stroke that has left him with numerous motor and sensory deficits. These deficits are most likely the result of which of the following mechanisms of cell injury? - ANSWER Hypoxia and ATP depletion An elderly client has experienced some hypoxia as a result of chronic respiratory problems. Knowing that oxygen -deprived cells result in an accumulation of lactic acid in the cells, physiologically, the client may experience: - ANSWER Altered cell membrane permeability A client presents for a scheduled Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of: - ANSWER Changes in cell shape, size, and organization A client has experienced significant decreases in mobility and stamina during a 3-week hospital stay for the treatment of a femoral head fracture. Which of the following phenomena most likely accounts for the client's decrease in muscle function? - ANSWER Disuse atrophy of muscle cells during a prolonged period of immobility

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    Which of the following is most accurate regarding a distribution of returns that has a mean greater than its median? A) It is positively skewed. B) It is a symmetric distribution. C) It has positive excess kurtosis. - ANSWER A) It is positively skewed / skewed to right; Kurtosis deals with the overall shape of a distribution A distribution of returns that has a greater percentage of small deviations from the mean and a greater percentage of extremely large deviations from the mean compared with a normal distribution: A) is positively skewed. B) has positive excess kurtosis. C) has negative excess kurtosis. - ANSWER B) has positive excess kurtosis. Leptokurtic; the distribution will be more peaked and have a fatter tail

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    What prevents Congress and the President from unilaterally making laws and treaties? - ANSWER>>Separation of Power What give Congress the authority to make laws? - ANSWER>>Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution Who reviews the constitution for interpretation of the constitution? - ANSWER>>Supreme Court Who has the power to raise taxes given in Article 1 of the Constitution? - ANSWER>>Congress (Legislative Branch) What does the Congress of the US consist of? - ANSWER>>Senate (6 yrs); House (2 yrs) All bills for raising Revenue shall originate where? But the Senate may propose or concur with Amendments as on other Bills. - ANSWER>>House of Representative

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    Paget's disease of the breast - ANSWER--s/s: red-colored scaly rash that starts at nipple and spreads to areola of one breast, pain, crusting -may indicate breast mass menstrual cycle phases - ANSWER--1. follicular phase 2. ovulation 3. luteal phase 4. menstruation follicular phase - ANSWER--The first phase of the ovarian cycle, during which a follicle (an oocyte and its surroudning cells) enlarges and matures. This phase is under the control of FSH from the anterior pituitary, and typically lasts from day 1 to day 14 of the menstrual cycle. The follicle secretes estrogen during this time period. ovulatory phase - ANSWER--The second stage of the general menstrual cycle, LH is secreted by anterior pituitary gland inducing maturation of follicle and ovulation

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    A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to control her Stage II hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is currently complaining of pain on her right hip and on both knees. She has increased her dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 mg TID. She is still in pain and would like something stronger. Which of the following statements is the best explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her disease? A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics D) None of the statements are true -CORRECT ANSWER-B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic. NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which predisposes the kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal failure by decreasing renal blood flow. 2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except: A) Bacterialvaginosis B) Candidiasis C) Trichomoniasis D) Chlamydia trachomatis -CORRECT ANSWER-D) Chlamydia trachomatis

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    What is the primary legislation governing Ontario's retail automotive sector? - ANSWER--Moter Vehicle Dealers Act, 2002 Which body or agency enforces MVDA? - ANSWER--OMVIC List Three Functions carried out by OMVIC - ANSWER--1) Administers and enforces the MVDA 2) Inspects dealers 3)Maintains a complaint line for consumers 4) Conducts investigations 5) Conducts disciplinary hearings 6) Conducts prosecutions 7) Administers the Compensation Fund How many people compose OMVICS board of directors? How many dealers ? How many consumers? - ANSWER--12 total 9 dealer 3 consumer

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    Which of the following situations could cause functional grief? A.Inability to live at home B.Amputation of a limb C.Loss of one's self-image D.Destruction of the patient's car Using the American College of Surgeons screening guidelines, what assessment finding would prompt the nurse to prepare a patient for cervical spine imaging? A.Alert with no neurologic deficits B.Multiple abrasions to the extremities C.Ecchymosis to the flank D.Responds to verbal stimulation An adult was thrown against a concrete wall during a factory explosion and sustained a femur fracture, liver laceration, and a small subdural hematoma. These injuries most likely occurred during what level of blast trauma? A.Primary B.Secondary C.Tertiar

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    Which of the following is true regarding computer forensics? -ANSWER ==Computer forensics deals with the process of finding evidence related to a digital crime to find the culprits and initiate legal action against them.Which of the following is NOT a objective of computer forensics? -ANSWER ==Document vulnerabilities allowing further loss of intellectual property, finances, and reputation during an attack.Which of the following is true regarding Enterprise Theory of Investigation (ETI)? -ANSWER ==It adopts a holistic approach toward any criminal activity as a criminal operation rather as a single criminal act.Forensic readiness refers to: -ANSWER ==An organization's ability to make optimal use of digital evidence in a limited time period and with minimal investigation costs.Which of the following is NOT a element of cybercrime? -ANSWER ==Evidence smaller in size.Which of the following is true of cybercrimes? -ANSWER ==Investigators, with a warrant, have the authority to forcibly seize the computing devices.Which of the following is true of cybercrimes? -ANSWER ==The initial reporting of the evidence is usually informal.Which of the following is NOT aconsideration during a cybercrime investigation? -ANSWER ==Value or cost to the victim.Which of the following is a user-created source of potential evidence? -ANSWER ==Address book.Which of the following is a computer-created source of potential evidence? -ANSWER ==Swap file.Which of the following is NOT where potential evidence may be located? -ANSWER ==Processor.Under which of the following conditions will duplicate evidence NOT suffice? -ANSWER ==When original evidence is in possession of the originator. Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence governs proceedings in the courts of the United States? -ANSWER ==Rule 101.Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence ensures that the truth may be ascertained and the proceedings justly determined? -ANSWER ==Rule 102.Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence contains rulings on evidence? -ANSWER ==Rule 103Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence states that the court shall restrict the evidence to its proper scope and instruct the jury accordingly? -ANSWER ==Rule 105Which of the following refers to a set of methodological procedures and techniques to identify, gather, preserve, extract, interpret, document, and present evidence from computing equipment in such a manner that the discovered evidence is acceptable during a legal and/or administrative proceeding in a court of law? -ANSWER ==Computer Forensics.Computer Forensics deals with the process of finding _____ related to a digital crime to find the culprits and initiate legal action against them. -ANSWER ==Evidence.Minimizing the tangible and intangible losses to the organization or an individual is considered an essential computer forensics use. -ANSWER ==True.Cybercrimes can be classified into the following two types of attacks, based on the line of attack. -ANSWER ==Internal and External.Espionage, theft of intellectual property, manipulation of records, and trojan horse attacks are examples of what? -ANSWER ==Insider attack or primary attacks.External attacks occur when there are inadequate information-security policies and procedures. -ANSWER ==True.Which type of cases involve disputes between two parties? -ANSWER ==Civil.A computer forensic examiner can investigate any crime as long as he or she takes detailed notes and follows the appropriate processes. -ANSWER ==False.________ is the standard investigative model used by the FBI when conducting investigations against major criminal organizations. -ANSWER ==Enterprise Theory of Investigation (ETI).Forensic readiness includes technical and nontechnical actions that maximize an organization's competence to use digital evidence. -ANSWER ==True. Which of the following is the process of developing a strategy to address the occurrence of any security breach in the system or network? -ANSWER ==Incident Response.Digital devices store data about session such as user and type of connection. -ANSWER ==True.Codes of ethics are the principles stated to describe the expected behavior of an investigator while handling a case. Which of the following is NOT a principle that a computer forensic investigator must follow? -ANSWER ==Provide personal or prejudiced opinions.What must an investigator do in order to offer a good report to a court of law and ease the prosecution? -ANSWER ==Preserve the evidence.What is the role of an expert witness? -ANSWER ==To educate the public and court.Which of the following is NOT a legitimate authorizer of a search warrant? -ANSWER ==First Responder.Under which of the following circumstances has a court of law allowed investigators to perform searches without a warrant? -ANSWER ==Delay in obtaining a warrant may lead tothe destruction of evidence and hamper the investigation process.Which of the following should be considered before planning and evaluating the budget for the forensic investigation case? -ANSWER ==Breakdown of costs into daily and annual expenditure.Which of the following should be physical location and structural design considerations for forensics labs? -ANSWER ==Lab exteriors should have no windows.Which of the following should be work area considerations for forensics labs? -ANSWER ==Examiner station has an area of about 50-63 square feet.Which of the following is NOT part of the Computer Forensics Investigation Methodology? -ANSWER ==Testify as an expert defendant.Which of the following is NOT part of the Computer Forensics Investigation Methodology? -ANSWER ==Destroy the evidence.Investigators can immediately take action after receiving a report of a security incident. -ANSWER ==False.In forensics laws, "authenticating or identifying evidences" comes under which rule? -ANSWER ==Rule 901.

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    What Is progress monitoring used for? - ANSWER>>Monitoring Academic and Behavior progress A general education teacher and an EL teacher are co-teaching an English language arts class in a diverse urban classroom. This particular class is taught in English. During this lesson on note taking, the general educator provides the lecture while the EL teacher walks the room answering questions and modeling when needed. Which model of coteaching are these two teachers using? - ANSWER>>One teach, one assist Two general educators teach an interdisciplinary class combining history and art. The art teacher is teaching the general lecture on this particular day while the history teacher collects data on her counterpart's lecture clarity and student behavior. Which model of co-teaching are these two teachers using? - ANSWER>>One teach, one observe

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    What is the Review of Systems? - ANS>>Set of questions asked about pt's past medical hx by going through each of the major organ systems Which of the following statements about the ASA physical status classification of patients is false? A. It consists of five risk classifications B. It allows the surgeon to anesthetize a class V patient routinely C. It helps determine whether a patient should be hospitalized D. It is a useful tool for establishing a patient's risk level before surgery. - ANS>>B Patients with diabetes are at risk for oral and maxillofacial surgery because? - ANS>>Are subject to postoperative infections A patient who has had a myocardial infarction should wait how many months before having elective surgery? - ANS>>6 months

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    What pressure ulcer sites are common in the knee with a patient in a sims position? - ANSWER- medial knee - later knee - posterior knee What pressure ulcer sites are common in the foot/ ankle area with a patient in a sims position? - ANSWER- medial malleolus - lateral malleolus - lateral edge of foot What causes hemorrhages? - ANSWER- blood loss - heavy blood loss - profuse discharge of blood What is a stage 1 Pressure ulcer called? - ANSWER- Non-blanchable erythema What are the characteristics of a stage 1 pressure ulcer? - ANSWERintact skin - non-blanchable redness

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    COPD patients may develop a condition characterized by a constantly high carbon dioxide level in the blood due to poor gas exchange. this may cause the cell receptors to respond to low levels of oxygen to stimulate breathing. this condition is called - ANSWER--hypoxic drive hypoxic drive - ANSWER--A condition in which chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; seen in patients with chronic lung diseases. you are treating a 22 year old female at the local supermarket. the patient is short of breath. the patient stated that it came on suddenly and is a sharp, stabbing pain in the left side of her chest. she is breathing about 26 times per minute. her skin is cool and clammy. she is very restless and anxious. the only medication she states that she takes is birth control pills. you should suspect - ANSWER--pulmonary embolism

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    Aspirin is contra indicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing what adverse affect? - ANSWER ==Reye's syndrome Education for a CKF patient who has a new prescription of epoetin alpha - ANSWER ==Therapeutic effects: stimulates RBC production and reduces anemia which is common in chronic kidney failure patient since erythropoietin is produced by the kidney Adverse effects: HTN, clotting formation of fistula What medication should be administered to a patient who has PUD and report a headache? - ANSWER ==Acetaminophen- can be administered to a patient with PUD because it doesn't affect blood coagulation and doesn't increase the risk of G.I. bleeding Contraindicated: Ibuprofen, naproxen, & aspirin are all NSAID's, can reduce platelet aggregation and increase the risk of G.I. hemorrhage Clopidogrel (Plavix) - ANSWER ==Platelet aggregation inhibitor Used to prevent stenosis of coronary stents, MI, strokes Adverse effects: dizziness, headaches, HTN, diarrhea; coffee ground emesis, black tarry stools, ecchymosis (which are signs of bleeding) Rx: for bleeding Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) - ANSWER ==Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Gonorrhea 3rd generation cephalosporin Contraindicated: in patients who have an allergy to cephalosporins or a severe allergy to penicillin Piperacillin - ANSWER ==Penicillin Cross sensitivity to ceftriaxone, a third generation cephalosporin used to treat gonorrhea

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    FISDAP Airway practice STUDY GUIDE EXAMS WITH QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BUNDLED TOGETHER.DOWNLOAD!!!

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    You arrive on the scene to discover a 65-year-old female lying on the floor of her living room. Your first step in the care of this patient is to" A. begin chest compressions B. apply the AED C. maintain an open airway D. assess level of consciousness - ANSWER ==C. maintain an open airway Tidal volume is best defined as the: A. volume of air inhaled on a single breath B. volume of air that remains in the upper airway C. total volume of air that the lungs are capable of holding D. volume of air moved in and out of the lungs each minute - ANSWER ==A. volume of air inhaled on a single breath You are called to assist s SCUBA diver who is having trouble breathing. The patient states that it started approximately 15 minutes after she surfaced. She complains of chest pain, dizziness, blurred vision and nausea and vomiting. The patient is most likely suffering from: A. pneumothorax B. decompression sickness C. barotrauma D. an air embolism - ANSWER ==D. an air embolism (Any of these could be associated with dive incidents but these signs and symptoms are indicative of an air embolism. Divers who suffer from decompression sickness, or the bends, typically do not develop signs and symptoms of the bends for 12 to 24 hours after their dive. Barotrauma usually occurs as the diver is ascending or descending.)

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    WGU PATHOPHYSIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE NUR 2063 ESSENTIALS PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2 PATHOPHSIOLOGY TEST BANK(BIOLOGICAL BASIS FOR DISEASE IN ADULTS AND CHILDREN

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    MARYVILLE PATHO NURS 611 EXAM 2 1. Parasympathetic nervous system: Body system responsible for conserving energy and body resources 2. Sympathetic nervous system (SNS): Body system that responds to stress by preparing the body to defend itself 3. how is blood flow redistributed by the sympathetic nervous system (SNS)- : blood flow to the muscles is increased while blood flow to GI and integumentary is decreased 4. how are primary brain injuries classified: Focal or diffuse (aka multifocal) 5. focal brain injuries: specific, grossly observable brain lesions that occur in a precise location Epidural and subdural hemorrhages 611-PATHO EXAM 1. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism? a. Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss b. Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin c. Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia d. Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy The lower levels of thyroid hormone result in decreased energy metabolism, resulting in constipation, bradycardia, and lethargy, thus eliminating the remaining options. 2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of: a. Positive feedback b. Neural regulation c. Negative feedback d. Physiologic regulation Negative feedback. Feedback systems provide precise monitoring and control of the cellular environment. Negative feedback occurs because the changing chemical, neural, or endocrine response to a stimulus negates the initiating change that triggered the release of the hormone. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates TSH secretion from the anterior pituitary. Secretion of TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of THs. Increasing levels of T4 and triiodothyronine (T3) then generate negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit TRH and TSH synthesis.

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    PCT DAVITA (RN)FINAL EXAM When dialyzing a patient with acute kidney injury, one task of the patient care teammates is to monitor blood pressure and weight closely. Why is it important? - correct answer ✅hypovolemia and hypotensive episodes can cause renal ischemia and can further damage the kidneys. CKD can have its origin pre-renal , intra-renalm or post renal. Which of the following conditions is an intra-renal cause of CKD - correct answer ✅HTN. DAVITA FINAL EXAM WITH 90+ QUESTIONS $ ANSWERS/GRADED A+ 1. Per Davita policy, fever and chills is defined as a. Any temperature greater than 99°F or increase over baseline of 1°F with symptoms b. Any temperature greater than 99°F or increase over baseline of 1°F without symptoms c. Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F with symptoms d. Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F without symptoms: c. Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F with symptoms 2. Documentation in the medical record a. Includes caregiver opinion. b. Belongs to the patient. c. Is a permanent legal record of the care provided d. Is not subject to review by surveyors: c. Is a permanent legal record of the care provided 2023/2024 DAVITA FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS/ RATED A+ what is the difference between data collection and assessment? who does what? - correct answer data collection:yes or no assessment: the extend. what is the role of pct prior to treatment initiation? - correct answer data collection notify nurse of any abnormalities what is the role of the licensed nurse prior to treatment initiation? - correct answer nurse assessment when us a pre-treatment assessment by the licensed nurse required? - correct answer if vitals were abnormal

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    A 12-year-old child being evaluated in the pediatric intensive care unit displays the following ECG waveform. The team interprets this as which arrhythmia?Answer second degree Laboratory tests are ordered for a child who has been vomiting for 3 days and is diaphoretic, tachypneic, lethargic and pale. Which test would the provider use to determine

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    Harsh, High-pitched, Loud - ANSWER ==You can hear bronchial sounds above the manubrium, over the trachea. Bronchial Sounds are: Medium in loudness, medium in pitch - ANSWER ==Bronchiovesicular sounds are heard over the main bronchi. These sounds are: Abdominal Cavity - ANSWER ==Spans from the diaphragm to the pubis. Abdominal Viscera - ANSWER ==organs of the abdomen Two types of abdominal viscera - ANSWER ==Hollow & solid Which chambers receive blood? - ANSWER ==right and left atria Which chambers pump the blood out? - ANSWER ==right and left ventricles The right atrium receives the systemic venous return from what? - ANSWER ==interior vena cava and superior vena cava

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    TEH TAT WEI J16022470 GENERAL CHEMISTRY 1, LAB EXPERIMENT 5 SECTION B 2023 TITLE Determination of Molar Mass from Freezing-Point Depression AIM To determine the molar mass of an unknown solute in a solution from freezing-point depression. PROCEDURES Please refer to the laboratory manual pg. 43 and pg. 44. RESULTS Table 1. Time-temperature readings.

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    1. A nurse is conducting screening at a local clinic to identify clients needing instruction regarding with management which clients required for the action based on body mass index (BMI) level? (select all that apply). A. A client diagnosed with diabetes and has a BMI of 22, B. A client who has high blood pressure and has a BMI of 32, C. A client who was diagnosed anorexia nervosa and has a BMI of 16, D. A client diagnosed with diabetes and has a BMI of 31, E. A client who has heart disease and has a BMI of 29: B C D E 2. A nurse at a health fair is assessing the weight status of four clients. which of the following clients should be considered underweight?: A client with a body mass index of 17 3. I would know the role of nitrogen in the body, the role of nitrogen and remember when individuals are not getting enough nutrients, it can cause a decrease in nitrogen in the body.: nitrogen (N) is a primary component of protein, the body's use of protein can be determined by nitrogen-balance 4. starvation cause poor nitrogen balance: 5. A nurse is providing information for a client with diabetes about which dietary source should provide the greatest percentage of calories. which of the following statements indicates the client understands the instruction? A. I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else B. Most of my calories each day should be from fat C. Protein should be my main source of calories D. Simple sugars are needed more than other calorie source: A

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    Mr. Zachow has a condition for which three drugs are available. He has tried two but had an allergic reaction to them. Only the third drug works for him and it is not on his Part D plan's formulary. What could you tell him to do? -ANSWER Mr. Zachow has a right to request a formulary exception to obtain coverage for his Part D drug. He or his physician could obtain the standardized request form on the plan's website, fill it out, and submit it to his plan. Mr. Polanski likes the cost of an HMO plan available in his area, but would like to be able to visit one or two doctors who aren't participating providers. He wants to know if the Point of Service (POS) option available with some HMOs will be of any help in this situation. What should you tell him? -ANSWER The POS option might be a good solution for him as it will allow him to visit out-of-network providers, generally without prior approval. However, he should be aware that it is likely he will have to pay higher cost-sharing for services from out-of-network providers.

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    Chapter 01: Aspects of Medical-Surgical NursingLinton: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What provides direction for individualized care and assures the delivery of accurate, safe care through a definitive pathway that promotes the client‘s and the support persons‘ progress toward positive outcomes? a. Physician‘s orders b. Progress notes c. Nursing care plan d. Client health history ANS: C The nursing care plan provides direction for individualized care and assures the delivery of accurate, safe care through a definitive pathway that promotes the client‘s and the support persons‘ progress toward positive outcomes. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 2 OBJ: 1 TOP: Nursing Care Plan KEY: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk 2. The nurse is performing behaviors and actions that assist clients and significant others in meeting their needs and the identified outcomes of the plan of care. What is the correct term for these nursing behaviors? a. Assessments b. Interventions c. Planning d. Evaluation ANS: B Caring interventions are those nursing behaviors and actions that assist clients and significant others in meeting their needs and the identified outcomes of the plan of care. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 3 OBJ: 1 TOP: Interventions KEY: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk

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    1. What is the fourth requirement needed in the fire tetrahedron for flames to exist? A. Uninhibited chain reaction B. Uniterm-1nhibited chemical reaction C. Combustion D. Smoke: B. Uninhibited chemical reaction 2. Normal oxygen content in a atmosphere is ....... %. A. 19.5 to 22 B. 19 to 21 C. 17 to 18 13.5 to 17: A. 19.5 to 22 3. A deep fat fryer fire is classified as a ...... fire. A. Alpha B. Bravo C. Charlie D.Delta: B. Bravo 4. Potassium Bicarbonate Powder (PKP) ...... A. breaks the combustion chain. B. provides a cooling effect. C. provides a smothering effect. D. is non corrosive.: A. breaks the combustion chain.

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    Which of the following factors can have a negative effect on uterine blood flow? a. Hypertension b. Epidural c. Hemorrhage d. Diabetes e. All of the above -correct answer e. All of the above How does the fetus compensate for decreased maternal circulating volume? a. Increases cardiac output by increasing stroke volume. b. Increases cardiac output by increasing it's heart rate. c. Increases cardiac output by increasing fetal movement. -correct answer b. Increases cardiac output by increasing it's heart rate. Stimulating the vagus nerve typically produces: a. A decrease in the heart rate b. An increase in the heart rate c. An increase in stroke volume d. No change -correct answer a. A decrease in the heart rate

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    A nurse on a pediatric unit is assisting the manager with preparing an education program on working with families for a group of newly hired nurses. Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing the developmental theory? A. Describes that stress is inevitable B. Emphasizes that change with one member affects the entire family C. Provides guidance to assist families adapting to stress D. Defines consistencies in how families change - CORRECT ANSWER Defines consistencies in how families change A nurse is assisting a group of guardians of adolescents to develop skills that will improve communication within the family. The nurse hears one guardian state, "My son knows he better do what I say." Which of the following parenting styles is the parent exhibiting? A. Authoritarian B. Permissive C. Authoritative D. Passive - CORRECT ANSWER A. Authoritarian

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    term used to describe the gap between those who have and those who do not have access to online information - CORRECT ANSWER digital divide Term used to reflect age disparities in computer connectivity - CORRECT ANSWER grey gap the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions - CORRECT ANSWER health literacy developed to address the growing need for managing health information and to promote technology as a means of improving health information exchange - CORRECT ANSWER eHealth Initiative 1. have patient education stored electronically so that changed can be made as needed 2. sponsor health promotion education classes to market their facility - CORRECT ANSWER HCO Approach to Engagement

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